One way
to avoid Jesus’ plain teaching on divorce is to attempt to re-define the
words He used. Jesus’ words are:
“but I
say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for the cause of
unchastity, makes her commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced
woman commits adultery.” – Matthew 5:32 (NASB)
“And I
say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and
marries another woman commits adultery.” – Matthew 19:9 (NASB)
So the
person who is seeking to justify a marriage after a divorce for some
cause other than physical fornication says, “Jesus does not mean sexual
adultery.” And when I ask for a definition of “adultery” he answers, “It
means the act of divorcing and remarrying.” This is what a South African
preacher told me and what a number of others are teaching. (Of course,
the reason for this definition is to make it possible for a divorced and
remarried person to “repent” of the act of divorcing and remarrying and
to stay married to his or her second partner without sin.)
Defining
“adultery” to mean “the act of divorcing for some cause other than for
fornication and marrying again” violates two simple, common-sense rules
of grammar.
1. The
first rule, stated in my words, is that a word should be understood
in its ordinary sense unless the way it is used shows that it is to be
understood in another way. Often Jesus used words to mean something
other than their ordinary meaning, but when He did it is easy to see
from the context what He meant. For instance, in John 6:54 He
said, “He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I
will raise him up on the last day.” A careful reading of the chapter
causes us to understand that when Jesus said “My flesh” and “My blood”
He was referring to His words, and therefore the word “eats” means
“listens to” or “heeds”. (See verse 47, for instance).
However,
unless the context shows that the word is used in a metaphorical sense,
we should understand it in its literal sense. In John 3:5 Jesus
said, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the
Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.” He later explains that
the word “born” refers to a birth of one’s spirit, but there is nothing
in the context to show that the words “water” and “the Spirit” are not
literal. “Water” means “water,” not something else. Those who
“spiritualize” the word “water” to mean “the Holy Spirit” or something
else ignore the plain meaning of the word and violate an important
grammatical principle.
Let’s
apply this rule to Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9. There is
nothing in the context to show that Jesus used the word “adultery” in
anything other than its ordinary sense. The ordinary meaning of the word
fits perfectly with what Jesus says. Not only does the put-away woman
commit adultery when she marries again, but the man who marries her
commits adultery. When a person who is bound by the marriage bond has
sex with a person he or she is not bound to, both that person and the
person he or she has sex with commits adultery. That is the ordinary
meaning of the word, and that fits perfectly with what Jesus says. There
is nothing in the context to suggest that the word should be used in
anything but its ordinary meaning. If we can change its meaning to fit
our desires, we can change anything in the Bible! It reminds me of the
story I heard a long time ago. A man who was in the Old Apostle Church
told a preacher that the Ethiopian eunuch was not baptized in literal
water. He said “the chariot” represented his “responsibility” and “the
water” represented “the light.” What a mess! But the only way to avoid
such a mess is to understand words in their ordinary sense unless the
context shows that they are used in a different way.
2. A
second simple grammatical rule is: When a
word is defined properly, the definition can be substituted for the word
and the sentence will make sense and mean the same.
If we go
back to the example in John 6:54, if we substitute the word
“heeds” for “eats” and the word “words” or “teachings” for the words
“flesh” and “blood,” the sentence reads, “He who heeds My words has
eternal life.” We have substituted the definitions for the actual words
used, and the sentence makes perfect sense. It fits the context, and the
definition fits in the sentence.
However
this will not work with the non-sexual definition of adultery. If we
substitute the definition for the word “adultery” we get:
“but I
say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for the cause of
unchastity, makes her [divorce and remarry]; and whoever marries a
divorced woman [divorces and remarries].” – Matthew 5:32
“And I
say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and
marries another woman [divorces and remarries].” – Matthew 19:9
That
simply does not make good sense. The definition does not fit the
sentence. The definition must be wrong! The only way to understand
Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 is to understand the word
“adultery” to mean what it usually means.
Mental Divorce
Another
recent doctrine redefines what the word “divorce” means. The proponents
of this theory say that when a person (usually a man) divorces his mate
for a cause other than fornication, the divorce is not a “valid”
divorce. They have said that when one divorces his wife for a cause
other than fornication, the divorce is a “farce”, not a real divorce.
Because it is not for the cause of fornication, God does not recognize
the divorce; the legal divorce means nothing in God’s sight. Later, when
the former wife realizes that her ex-husband is not coming back to her
and was committing adultery all the time, she can then decide to
“divorce” her ex-husband for the cause of adultery. Since there is no
legal way for her to do this, it is a mental act, thus the reason I call
it “mental divorce”. This becomes the “valid” divorce and she,
therefore, has the right to remarry.
Incidentally, the reasoning that allows the wife to divorce her husband
for adultery in her mind after he divorces her legally, will allow her
to wait until he commits adultery after the divorce and then divorce him
mentally. Though the proponents of this theory do not like this
consequence of their teaching, it appears to me to be the logical
conclusion. If the legal divorce is not a divorce, then if the
ex-husband commits adultery after the legal divorce, their doctrine will
allow the woman to mentally divorce her husband and remarry without sin.
This has been called “the waiting game.” Most of those who are teaching
“mental divorce” claim not to believe in the waiting game, but I believe
their doctrine allows it.
I
consider this to be a very dangerous doctrine. I am persuaded that it is
giving comfort to people who are living in adultery. The plain words of
Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 show that the doctrine is false.
Let’s read those verses again.
“but I
say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for the cause of
unchastity, makes her commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced
woman commits adultery.” – Matthew 5:32 (NASB)
“And I
say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and
marries another woman commits adultery.” – Matthew 19:9 (NASB)
Jesus
says that a man “divorces” his wife when she is not guilty of unchastity
(fornication). That is what Jesus calls the act. He calls it “divorce”.
He does not call it “unrecognized divorce” or “farcical divorce” or
“invalid divorce”. He uses a word which his hearers and his readers can
easily understand. He uses the word “marries” in the same way. He does
not say, “marries in an unrecognized way” or “marries in a farcical way”
or “marries in an invalid way”. The man “divorces” the woman, and she
“marries” another. Simple. Easy to understand.
Understanding the teaching is easy. Any woman who has been divorced by
her husband, regardless of the reason for the divorce, commits adultery
if she marries another man. The only problem is—we don’t like that
teaching. We want to find some way out.
So those
who are teaching the new theory have redefined the words used by Jesus.
But it won’t work. Read those verses again. Jesus calls it “divorce”
whether it is for the cause of adultery or not. The ONE word is
used for both circumstances. It has to mean the same in both cases.
There is no way it can be “divorce” for the cause of adultery but “no
divorce” in other cases.
Long
articles with complicated reasoning will not change this plain truth.
There is no room for “mental divorce” in Matthew 5:32 or 19:9.
The quote below deals with this very adequately:
“It
is the contention of this writer that it is a flagrant violation of
language and reasoning to argue that a person is divorced and yet
married to the person from whom he/she is divorced. A person may be
divorced unscripturally, but he/she is yet divorced; and a person
divorced from another person is not married to that person. This
business of insisting that one may be divorced ‘in the eyes of men’ and
not divorced ‘in the eyes of God’ is nonsense. God may not approve of a
given action (divorce or whatever), but that does not mean that the
action does not occur because God does not approve of it. A divorce
without scriptural grounds is yet a divorce and renders the person
divorced ‘unmarried.’ The argument being advanced here is that: ‘All
actions not approved of by God become non-actions or actions which do
not occur.’ If this is the case, then is it legitimate in any sense to
speak of an action as having occurred when in actuality it did not
occur? It is far better to take the language of a given text as meaning
what it says (i. e. married means married, divorced means divorced),
than to play this game of semantical gymnastics wherein words do not
mean what they mean.” [Maurice
W. Lusk, III, Marriage, Divorce and Remarriage in the Teachings of
Jesus and Paul (Atlanta: Guild of Scribes, 1982), pp. 44ff]
Postscript: I
am very disturbed about the teaching of mental divorce. I consider this
doctrine to be just as unscriptural and leading to just as bad
consequences as the doctrine that “baptism washes away marriages and you
can keep the partner you are with when you get baptized, no matter about
divorces before.” And what appals me is that leading brethren whom I
respect highly are believing and teaching this doctrine. We are faced
with a situation which is, I think, worse than when Bro. Hailey was
promoting his false doctrine that unbelievers are not under God’s
marriage law and therefore can be accepted on baptism no matter their
previous divorces. It is a time for study and soul-searching. It is a
time when we must look to our consciences and make sure that we do all
things without bias (1 Timothy 5:21). It is a time when we may
have to make choices as difficult as those we older ones had to take
during the 1950’s over institutionalism. May God help us!
For Past Auburn Beacons go to:
www.aubeacon.com/Bulletins.htm
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